Divorce question - pls & thank u ?

Question

I'm in the process of divorce. My soon to be ex wife had a child from another man during our separation; I did not adopt the child. I found out recently also about the new child while seeking a divorce lawyer. I told this info to my lawyer also. But during our paper work 
It reads ;

" There no children born of this marriage, born to one of the parties and adopted by the other, or adopted by both of the parties.  "

What does this mean? Does it make sense?  Because a child was born indeed but not just my biological child.

wanted to know before I complete the paper work review.

Thank U

babyboomer1001 · Answer

You are asking for legal advice.�� Only a lawyer can give you that.  It's written in plain language.  You two did not have a child together, whether natural or adopted.  Divorce papers have to state that, or there will be custody papers and a whole lot more crap you would have to go through.

Tarkarri · Answer

You are paying the lawyer to explain things like this.

keerok · Answer

I'm guessing that is from your wife's lawyer. Your lawyer should make changes to it making sure to include the fact that your wife had a child from another man while you were married and that you never adopted that child. This is important to your case and gives you strong grounds for divorce and hopefully help in freeing you from paying her anything at all due to infidelity.

i + i · Answer

The statement is saying that no child was 
born OF this marriage (not that NO child 
was born). Similarly, it states she didn't 
have one that you adopted (nor did you 
have one that she adopted), nor did you 
both adopt one together. Treading on thin 
ice -- you should be asking your lawyer 
about the wording, not total strangers.

? · Answer

It appears there was indeed a child born DURING the marriage (while she is still legally married to you) but not OF the marriage (the parties to the marriage did not create the baby together). I am sure your lawyer will sort it out for you.

boj · Answer

No it doesnt make sense. Since youre paying the lawyer have him explain it to you before signing. Also, have him check state laws..... some states will deem your wifes child as yours (only because it was born before the divorce), .and force you on child support.

OTTO · Answer

If there are no children born of this marriage, then you don't have to pay child support.

Divorce question - pls & thank u ?

7 Answers